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changes.mady.by.user Andrew Scrimgeour

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changes.mady.by.user Leif McLellan

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According to Bultmann's interpretation, the Johannine representation of Jesus as speaking and acting, not on his own authority, but on God's (as, e.g., in Jn 7:16 f.), is so far from in any way minimizing Jesus' authority that it is intended to maximize it. But, then, why can't one say the same thing, mutatis mutandis, about the synoptic representation of Jesus as speaking and acting in the consciousness of a difference between himself and the coming Son of Man (Mk 8:38; Lk 12:8 f.)?

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