By Schubert Ogden
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What is the problem with an inadequate philosophical doctrine? Is it that it fails to justify the practice of daily life, as Whitehead says (AI: 289), or is it that it fails to be justified by such practice?
If philosophy's "ultimate appeal is to the general consciousness of what in practice we experience" (PRePRc: 17 \ [25\]), then, surely, it is practice that justifies theory, not the other way around. Wiki Markup
Or are both statements true: theory in its way justifies practice, even as practice in its way justifies theory?
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