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I have had to rethink the whole question of the silnilarity similarity as well as the difference between materialism (and / or dualism) and objective idealism/ psychicalism as alternative metaphysical positions. 

If my argument is sound that what Hartshorne takes the metaphysician to be saying "analogically," as distinct from either "sYlnbolicallysymbolically" or "literally," cannot, in fact, be so distinguished except verbally, and that the metaphysician, therefore, must be saying something in one of these other two ways if it is to count as saying anything meaningful at all, then to speak of mind (or psyche) "in general," or "in some form," is utterly Ilichtssagendnichtssagend-not a whit less so than to speak of matter in the same completely generalized sense. In other words, if Hartshorne's right, as I agree he is, that "matter," used thus analogically, explains absolutely nothing that can't be explained without it, I don't see why I'm not likewise right, that "mind" so used explains just as little. If you can't even say what "mind in general," or "mind in some form," meallSmeans, you certainly can't use it to explain anything! 
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I submit that the burden of explaining things metaphysicaJJy metaphysically can be borne only by terms used neither "symboJicallysymbolically" nor "analogically," but strictly "literally." Of course, once such a strictly literal explanation has been provided, it may we11 be "interpreted," for one purpose or another, in symboJic symbolic terms. But any such "interpretation" adds nothing whatever to the explanation itself, which can be provided, if at all, only in strictly literal tennsterms. Thus X is the effect of Y, or X is caused by Y, not because X "somehow experiences" Y, or Y is "somehow experienced by" X, but because, or insofar as, X _is really, internally related to_ _Y,_ _'wllile_ _Y,_ _ill_ _that relation, at least, is oilly logically, externally related to'_ _X. Or, again, atoms act as they do, not-as Hartshorne says-because "they sense and feel as they do," but because_ _"they are intenUllly related as they are (to tlze future as (oell as to_ _tile_ _past),_ _i.e., as concrete singulars that, as such, instantiate all three of Peirce's categories: Itlhirdness as well as IsJecondness and \[flirstness" (Notebooks, 21 July_ _2008). _If one claims in reply, then, that, to say, "atoms act as they do because they sense and feel as they do," is to sa_"more"_ _than that "atoms act as they do because they are internally / externa\]\]y related as they are," wherein does the "more" consist? And can one specify it at once clearly and consistently, without logical fallacy? _ I maintain that Hartshorne, as one who makes the claim, never explains more than verbaJ\]y wherein the "more" consists. And I maintain, further, that, in the nature of the case, neither he nor anyone else can ever sufficiently specify the "more" both clearly and consistently-and also nonfallaciously. When I say that Hartshorne fails to explain other than verbally what the claimed "more" consists in, 1 mean that he never says anything about the "more" other than that it consists in "experience (sentience or feeling) in general," or "in some form." But, clearly, phrases such as "experience (sentience, feeling) in some form," or "experience (sentience, feeling) in general," are inherently vague and anything but clear._What_ _form, exactly? And what are the_ _variables_ _that define "experience (sentience, feeling) in genera\]," and of which any form of experience is presumably a value? Are they-or can they be--more than verbally different from the strictly literal variables that serve to define "concreteness" as a certain mode of internal/ external relatedness? Of course, unless they are--or can bethere is really nothing "more" said after all. But, then, wherein, exactly, does the "more" consist, and how is it to be specified sufficiently to remove the inherent vagueness of Hartshorne's terms by being shown to be rea1ly, not merely verbally, "more"? And could it be even possibly so specified without in some way committing the "pathetic fallacy" of treating a merely particular or "local" variable as though it were universal or "cosmic 'while Y, in that relation, at least, is only logically, externally related to' X. Or, again, atoms act as they do, not-as Hartshorne says-because "they sense and feel as they do," but because "they are internallly related as they are (to the future as (well as to the past), i.e., as concrete singulars that, as such, instantiate all three of Peirce's categories: |t|hirdness as well as |s|econdness and |f|irstness" (Notebooks, 21 July 2008).

If one claims in reply, then, that, to say, "atoms act as they do because they sense and feel as they do," is to say "more"  than that "atoms act as they do because they are internally / externally related as they are," wherein does the "more" consist? And can one specify it at once clearly and consistently, without logical fallacy? 

I maintain that Hartshorne, as one who makes the claim, never explains more than verbally wherein the "more" consists. And I maintain, further, that, in the nature of the case, neither he nor anyone else can ever sufficiently specify the "more" both clearly and consistently-and also nonfallaciously. When I say that Hartshorne fails to explain other than verbally what the claimed "more" consists in, I mean that he never says anything about the "more" other than that it consists in "experience (sentience or feeling) in general," or "in some form." But, clearly, phrases such as "experience (sentience, feeling) in some form," or "experience (sentience, feeling) in general," are inherently vague and anything but clear.What form, exactly? And what are the variables _that define "experience (sentience, feeling) in general," and of which any form of experience is presumably a value? Are they-or can they be-_more than verbally different from the strictly literal variables that serve to define "concreteness" as a certain mode of internal/ external relatedness? Of course, unless they are--or can bethere is really nothing "more" said after all. But, then, wherein, exactly, does the "more" consist, and how is it to be specified sufficiently to remove the inherent vagueness of Hartshorne's terms by being shown to be really, not merely verbally, "more"? And could it be even possibly so specified without in some way committing the "pathetic fallacy" of treating a merely particular or "local" variable as though it were universal or "cosmic"? Or-to put the same question more cautiously-how could one show that one had not committed this fallacy in so specifying it? "? Or-to put the same question more cautiously-how could one show that one had not committed this fallacy in so specifying it? _

For all Hartshorne ever shows to the contrary, the supposed "analogical" variables defining the alleged "more" remain at most verbally different from the strictly literal variables that suffice to define "concreteness," which is to say, a certain mode of relatedness, internal and also external, distinctive of concretes and thus distinct from the modes distinctive of other logical/ontological types, such as abstracts generally and transcendentals (and also, in their way, existentiaIs) specifically.

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