The Notebooks of Schubert Ogden

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What's the significance of the fact that, according to Paul, Christ in the end delivers the kingdom to God the Father and subjects himself to God, so that God may be everything to everyone (1 Cor 15:24-28), notwithstanding the Nicene Creed's assertion that Christ's kingdom will have no end?

The significance of this fact, I take it, is this: Although the Christian religion is nothing other or less than the true religion, being nevertheless a religion, it is at most a means to ultimate transformation and therefore itself not ultimate but penultimate. On the other hand, although the Christian religion is indeed a religion, etc., it is nevertheless nothing other or less than the true religion and therefore is in its own way ultimate after all.

The appearance of contradiction between these two statements is, I believe, only that.

n.d.; rev. 12 December 2004

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